Free GARP FRM-Part-2 Exam Questions

Which of the following statements about portfolio losses and default correlation are most likely correct?I. Increasing default correlation decreases senior tranche values but increases equity tranche values.II. At high default rates, increasing default correlation decreases mezzanine bond prices.

All of the following items are generally considered advantages of non-parametric estimation methods except:

A risk analyst is evaluating an investment portfolio using the Fama-French threefactormodel. The analyst regresses thirty years of weekly portfolio returns againstthe three factors of the model. The analyst obtains the following regression results:Alpha 0.10Market coefficient 0.52SMB coefficient 0.18HML coefficient -0.70Assuming all estimated coefficients are statistically significant, which of the following is correct?

Three and a half months ago, XYZ Manufacturing lost their single largest customer, and the company stopped service of all debt payments to ABC Bank. The bank has seized some collateral, but they are working with XYZ as they form plans to find new customers and build a better future. For now, the loans to XYZ Manufacturing should most likely be classified as:

A portfolio manager at a US-based hedge fund has been searching for potentialreturn opportunities in the environment of declining global interest rates experiencedafter the global financial crisis (GFC) of 2007-2009. The manager identifies theexistence of a positive cross-currency basis between two currencies and notes thatthis positive basis has persisted since the GFC. What is the most appropriateexplanation for this persistence?