Free GARP FRM-Part-2 Exam Questions

The treatment of tenor for certain types of cash flows for liquidity reporting is a concern for senior managers preparing reports for the Financial Services Authority (FSA) in the United Kingdom (UK). Based on recommendations of the FSA, what should be the treatment in liquidity reports for callable or demand deposits that have no maturity date?

Which of the following statements regarding scenario analysis workshops and brainstorming sessions at a large bank is most accurate?

An option pricing analyst at an investment bank has been asked to write a reportexamining the relationship between option prices and implied volatility curves. Theanalyst notes that the implied volatility curves of different underlying assets oftenhave different shapes and explains the reasons why this occurs. Which of thefollowing statements can correctly be included in the report?

An investment bank has a one-way credit support annex (CSA) on a bilateral transaction with a hedge fund counterparty. Under the terms of the CSA, the mark-to-market value of the transaction forms the basis of the hedge fund’s collateral requirements, which are provided below:Value (CNY)Mark-to-market value of net exposure 25,000,000Mark-to-market value of collateral posted 10,800,000Threshold amount 14,000,000Minimum transfer amount 2,500,000Rounding amount 10,000Assuming the net exposure increases to CNY 27,000,000 and the mark-to-market value of collateral posted has not changed, how much additional collateral will the hedge fund have to post?

A bank employee has been manipulating suspense (transitory) accounts for a prolonged time, and this event was determined to be a significant operational incident. Which of the following time intervals in terms of the operational incident date is most likely to be the longest?