Free GARP FRM-Part-2 Exam Questions

Which of the following statements describes the best approach for liquidity transfer pricing?

If the unconditional default probability of a Ba-rated bond during Year 3 is 1.914% and the probability of survival through Year 2 is 97.413%, the probability of a default during Year 3, conditional on no earlier default, is closest to:

The Merton model is different from Moody’s-KMV Expected Default Frequency approach in two key areas. Which of the following statements refers to one of those differences?

Brett Doninger recently placed an order to sell a stock when the market price was $42.12. The market was volatile and, by the time Doninger’s broker sold the stock, the price had fallen to $41.88. In the market, this phenomenon is known as:

An operational risk analyst at a large bank is preparing a year-end report of thebank’s operational loss events. The analyst uses the Basel operational risktaxonomy to classify different events into Level 1, Level 2, and Level 3. As part ofthis process, the analyst considers the following four events that occurred during the year:• A sales representative in the lending department forged a senior manager’ssignature to approve an application for a large commercial loan that defaulted.• The bank failed to deliver sufficient collateral to support a swap position,which was later terminated at a loss.• Several managers in the bank’s wealth management group were found tohave misused confidential customer information by sharing this informationwith other employees and a third-party vendor representative.• Some personal customer information was stolen in a cyber-attack in whichan external hacker broke into a database stored in the cloud.In classifying the four events and considering the Basel taxonomy in general, whichof the following actions would be most appropriate for the analyst to take?