Free GARP FRM-Part-2 Exam Questions

A manager from the structured credit risk desk at a bank is presenting to a group ofnewly hired risk analysts on calculating cash flows in a securitization structure. Themanager illustrates the procedure with the existing collateral pool of loans and thecorresponding liabilities, all with a maturity of 5 years, using the following information:Initial number of loans in the collateral pool 100Principal amount of each loan EUR 1,000,000Total coupon interest to be paid annually on all junior and senior bonds EUR 6,300,000Maximum annual amount flowing from the excess spread into the overcollateralization account EUR 1,500,000Swap rate per year for all maturities 3.5%Recovery rate in the event of a loan default 45%The manager makes additional observations as follows:• The loans in the collateral pool pay a fixed spread of 2.2% over the swap curve.• There were no defaults in year 1.• The value of the overcollateralization account at the end of year 1 was EUR 0.What is the value of the overcollateralization account at the end of year 2 if there are 8 defaults in year 2?

A presentation provided to executive leadership on the top 10 risks an entity is facing should include all of the following except:

A risk manager at MAB Funds estimates that the fund’s one-week value at risk (VaR) is $1 million using a 95% probability. The fund can, therefore, be expected to lose:

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding risks incurred by retail lenders?

Which of the following statements about portfolio losses and default correlation are most likely correct?I. Increasing default correlation decreases senior tranche values but increases equity tranche values.II. At high default rates, increasing default correlation decreases mezzanine bond prices.