Free GARP FRM-Part-2 Exam Questions

Which of the following statements best characterizes the differences between the Ho-Lee model with drift and the lognormal model with drift?

An analyst at a fixed-income investment company is evaluating different ways thecompany uses to estimate the VaR of its corporate bond portfolios. The portfoliosconsist of a large number of bonds with a wide range of maturities. The analystexamines the possibility of using a mapping approach to simplify the estimationprocess. Which of the following statements would the analyst be correct to makeregarding the approaches to mapping fixed-income portfolios?

An analyst at a financial institution has been asked to assess the quality ofestimating credit VaR (CVaR) of a homogenous portfolio of firms (credits) using thesingle-factor model, under which default correlation varies with the firm’s beta to themarket factor. The analyst examines the portfolio under the following assumptions:• There are 1,000 firms (credits) in the portfolio.• Each firm represents 0.1% of the portfolio.• There is no idiosyncratic risk.• Loss given default is the same for each firm in the portfolio.Based on the information provided, which of the following observations, if made bythe analyst, would be correct regarding the application of the single-factor model and its parameters?

The treatment of tenor for certain types of cash flows for liquidity reporting is a concern for senior managers preparing reports for the Financial Services Authority (FSA) in the United Kingdom (UK). Based on recommendations of the FSA, what should be the treatment in liquidity reports for callable or demand deposits that have no maturity date?

Bank Macatawa has a $150 million exposure to Holland Metals Co. The exposure is secured by $125 million of collateral consisting of AA+-rated bonds. Holland Metals Co. is unrated. The collateral risk weight is 20%. Bank Macatawa assumes an adjustment to the exposure of +15% to allow for possible increases in the exposure and allows for a −25% change in the value of the collateral. Risk-weighted assets for the exposure are closest to: