Free GARP FRM-Part-2 Exam Questions

Become GARP Certified with updated FRM-Part-2 exam questions and correct answers

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Total 503 Questions | Updated On: Jan 29, 2026

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Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding risk assessment is most accurate?

A : Risk and control self-assessments (RCSAs) are a good mixture of qualitative and quantitative aspects.

B : The main purpose of risk assessment is to prioritize risk management and risk mitigation responses.

C : When backtesting the results of risk assessment against past incident experience, there is a tendency to underestimate the impact of an operational risk event.

D : When backtesting the results of risk assessment against past incident experience, there is a tendency to overestimate the likelihood of an operational risk event.

Answer: B

Question 2

Within the context of the three lines of defense model, risk champions (or risk specialists) are most likely to be included in which lines?

A : Line 3 only.

B : Line 2 only.

C : Line 1 only.

D : Lines 1 or 2.

Answer: C

Question 3

A junior risk analyst at a consulting firm is reviewing the operational arrangements of bilateral netting and central clearing of derivative trades. The analyst examines the following bilateral trades of three firms:• Firm 1’s exposure to Firm 2: AUD 90 million• Firm 2’s exposure to Firm 1: AUD 60 million• Firm 1’s exposure to Firm 3: AUD 12 million• Firm 3’s exposure to Firm 1: AUD 70 million• Firm 2’s exposure to Firm 3: AUD 57 million• Firm 3’s exposure to Firm 2: AUD 0 millionWhich of the following statements is correct?

A : Under bilateral netting, Firm 1’s net exposure is AUD 28 million.

B : Under bilateral netting, Firm 2’s net exposure is AUD 27 million.

C : Under central clearing, the CCP’s net exposure is AUD 28 million.

D : Under central clearing, Firm 3’s net exposure is AUD 0 million.

Answer: C

Question 4

A presentation provided to executive leadership on the top 10 risks an entity is facing should include all of the following except:

A : descriptions of the risks.

B : inherent and residual elements of each risk.

C : timelines for risk eliminations.

D : a ranked order based on likelihood and severity.

Answer: C

Question 5

The Merton model is different from Moody’s-KMV Expected Default Frequency approach in two key areas. Which of the following statements refers to one of those differences?

A : The Merton model factors the market value of the borrower’s equity, while Moody’s-KMV model uses book value.

B : The Merton model uses the risk-free rate to calculate the distance to default, while Moody’s-KMV model uses a customized value.

C : Moody’s-KMV model uses a default point with short-term debt and half of long term debt, while the Merton model only uses short-term debt.

D : The Merton model uses historical data to derive a distribution of default frequencies, while Moody’s-KMV model uses standardized expectations.

Answer: C

Page: 1 / 101

Total 503 Questions | Updated On: Jan 29, 2026

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