Free GARP FRM-Part-2 Exam Questions

Which of the following statements regarding the differences between Basel I, Basel II.5, and the Fundamental Review of the Trading Book (FRTB) for market risk capital calculations is incorrect?

A fund manager owns a portfolio of options on TUV, a non-dividend paying stock. The portfolio is made up of 5,000 deep in-the-money call options on TUV and 20,000 deep out-of-the-money call options on TUV. The portfolio also contains 10,000 forward contracts on TUV. Currently, TUV is trading at USD 52. Assuming 252 trading days in a year, the volatility of TUV is 12% per year, and that each of the option and forward contracts is on one share of TUV, which of the following amounts would be closest to the 1-day 99% VaR of the portfolio?

If portfolio assets are perfectly correlated, portfolio VaR will equal:

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding reduced-form versus structural models used to estimate default correlation?

An investment bank has a one-way credit support annex (CSA) on a bilateral transaction with a hedge fund counterparty. Under the terms of the CSA, the mark-to-market value of the transaction forms the basis of the hedge fund’s collateral requirements, which are provided below:Value (CNY)Mark-to-market value of net exposure 25,000,000Mark-to-market value of collateral posted 10,800,000Threshold amount 14,000,000Minimum transfer amount 2,500,000Rounding amount 10,000Assuming the net exposure increases to CNY 27,000,000 and the mark-to-market value of collateral posted has not changed, how much additional collateral will the hedge fund have to post?