Free GARP FRM-Part-2 Exam Questions

A derivative trading firm sells a European-style call option on stock JKJ with a time to expiration of 9 months, a strike price of EUR 45, an underlying asset price of EUR 67, and implied annual volatility of 27%. The annual risk-free interest rate is 2.5%. What is the trading firm’s counterparty credit exposure from this transaction?

Which of the following statements about callable bonds compared to noncallable bonds is false?

The head of the fixed-income department of a bank asks a risk analyst to review anoutstanding bond issued by Company GRN, a livestock producer. The bondcurrently trades at a spread of 250 bps over the risk-free interest rate and has arecovery rate of 75%. Senior management of the bank has expressed concernabout the slowdown in business activities in the livestock industry, which isexpected to last for the next 3 years. The analyst applies the constant hazard rateprocess in estimating default probability and assumes that, under a stressed marketscenario, the bond would trade at a spread of 480 bps over the risk-free interest ratecurve, and its recovery rate would decrease to 40%. Assuming the stress scenarioprevails, what would be the correct estimate of the probability that Company GRNwould not default on its bond over the next 3 years?

Which of the following actions is not an advantage of the central counterparty (CCP) in the centralized clearing process?

In which of the New Initiative Risk Assessment Process (NIRAP) business case topics would you most likely find an analysis of project costs and funding arrangements?