Free GARP FRM-Part-1 Exam Questions

Call and put option values are most sensitive to changes in the volatility of the underlying when:

A risk analyst at an asset management company is assessing the past performance of an internally managed equity fund. The analyst obtains the following information on the market and the fund over the last year:• Treynor performance index for the fund: 8.00%• Return of the market portfolio: 5.60%• Beta of the fund: 0.65• Risk-free rate of interest: 1.75%Based on the information above, what is the Jensen’s alpha for the equity fund over the same period?

Using the Black-Scholes model, compute the value of a European call option using the following imputs:Underlying stock price: $100Exercise price: $90Risk-free interest rate: 5%Volatility: 20%Dividend yield: 0%Time to expiration: one yearThe Black-Scholes call option price is closest to:

In the context of stress testing principles for banks, which of the following statements is correct regarding wrong-way risk? Wrong-way risk emerges when: there are changes in basis between the opening and closing of a futures

A risk analyst uses the bootstrap method to assess the market risk of a global equity portfolio that experienced significant volatility in the recent past. The analyst applies independent and identically distributed (IID) bootstrapping to the extracted standardized residuals of the fitted model, and these bootstrapped standardized residuals are then used to generate time paths of future asset returns. In the final step, the simulated data is used to estimate the VaR of the global equity portfolio over a 1-month horizon. Which of the following will the analyst find to be correct when applying the IID bootstrap method?