Free GARP FRM-Part-1 Exam Questions

A risk analyst at an asset management company is assessing the past performance of an internally managed equity fund. The analyst obtains the following information on the market and the fund over the last year:• Treynor performance index for the fund: 8.00%• Return of the market portfolio: 5.60%• Beta of the fund: 0.65• Risk-free rate of interest: 1.75%Based on the information above, what is the Jensen’s alpha for the equity fund over the same period?

Using the Black-Scholes model, compute the value of a European call option using the following imputs:Underlying stock price: $100Exercise price: $90Risk-free interest rate: 5%Volatility: 20%Dividend yield: 0%Time to expiration: one yearThe Black-Scholes call option price is closest to:

A risk analyst at an asset management company is assessing the past performance of an internally managed equity fund. The analyst obtains the following information on the market and the fund over the last year:• Treynor performance index for the fund: 8.00%• Return of the market portfolio: 5.60%• Beta of the fund: 0.65• Risk-free rate of interest: 1.75%Based on the information above, what is the Jensen’s alpha for the equity fund over the same period?

A risk manager at a bank is measuring the sensitivity of a bond portfolio to non-parallel shifts in spot rates. The portfolio currently holds a 4-year zero coupon bond and a 7-year zero coupon bond with the following sensitivities to these respective spot rates:Spot rate AND Change in portfolio value for 1-bp increase in spot rate (AUD)4-year -189.277-year -302.45To model the non-parallel movement of the spot rate curve, the manager treats the 2-year, 5-year, and 10-year spot rates as key rates. Given this information, what is the portfolio’s key rate 01 (KR01) for a 1-bp increase in the 5-year rate?

Which of the following is not a reason to accumulate loss data?