Free GARP FRM-Part-1 Exam Questions

A risk analyst uses the bootstrap method to assess the market risk of a global equity portfolio that experienced significant volatility in the recent past. The analyst applies independent and identically distributed (IID) bootstrapping to the extracted standardized residuals of the fitted model, and these bootstrapped standardized residuals are then used to generate time paths of future asset returns. In the final step, the simulated data is used to estimate the VaR of the global equity portfolio over a 1-month horizon. Which of the following will the analyst find to be correct when applying the IID bootstrap method?

In the context of stress testing principles for banks, which of the following statements is correct regarding wrong-way risk? Wrong-way risk emerges when: there are changes in basis between the opening and closing of a futures

Sue Johnson, FRM, has an elderly client with a very large asset base. The client intends to start divesting her fortune to various charities. Johnson is on the Board of a local charitable foundation. Johnson most appropriately:

A put option on DCY stock matures six months from today and sells for $0.49. A call option on DCY stock with the same strike price sells for $4.52. Both the put and the call are European options. DCY stock is priced at $55 and the risk-free rate of interest is 4 percent.The strike price of the put and call options is closest to:

A risk manager at Firm SPC is testing a portfolio for heteroskedasticity using the White test. The portfolio is modeled as follows: The residuals are computed as follows: Which of the following correctly depicts the second step in the White test for the portfolio?