Free GARP FRM-Part-1 Exam Questions

A risk analyst uses the bootstrap method to assess the market risk of a global equity portfolio that experienced significant volatility in the recent past. The analyst applies independent and identically distributed (IID) bootstrapping to the extracted standardized residuals of the fitted model, and these bootstrapped standardized residuals are then used to generate time paths of future asset returns. In the final step, the simulated data is used to estimate the VaR of the global equity portfolio over a 1-month horizon. Which of the following will the analyst find to be correct when applying the IID bootstrap method?

Using the Black-Scholes model, compute the value of a European call option using the following imputs:Underlying stock price: $100Exercise price: $90Risk-free interest rate: 5%Volatility: 20%Dividend yield: 0%Time to expiration: one yearThe Black-Scholes call option price is closest to:

All of the following are reasons that Nick Leeson engaged in aggressive speculative trading in the Barings Bank collapse except:

One of the basic requirements of a risk control process that a risk and control selfassessment program (RCSA) fails in is the:

A risk analyst at a growing bank is concerned about a loan exposure to a large manufacturing company which is losing significant market share in its industry. The analyst considers the use of different credit risk transfer mechanisms, including CDS, to manage this exposure. Which of the following statements correctly describes an appropriate benefit of using CDS in this situation?