Free GARP FRM-Part-1 Exam Questions

One of the basic requirements of a risk control process that a risk and control selfassessment program (RCSA) fails in is the:

A risk manager at a bank is measuring the sensitivity of a bond portfolio to non-parallel shifts in spot rates. The portfolio currently holds a 4-year zero coupon bond and a 7-year zero coupon bond with the following sensitivities to these respective spot rates:Spot rate AND Change in portfolio value for 1-bp increase in spot rate (AUD)4-year -189.277-year -302.45To model the non-parallel movement of the spot rate curve, the manager treats the 2-year, 5-year, and 10-year spot rates as key rates. Given this information, what is the portfolio’s key rate 01 (KR01) for a 1-bp increase in the 5-year rate?

An analyst is using key rate shifts to model the term structure of interest rates. For key rates the analyst has chosen the 1-year, 7-year, and 20-year yields. The rate changes that will have an e ect on a 5-year bond are:

In the context of stress testing principles for banks, which of the following statements is correct regarding wrong-way risk? Wrong-way risk emerges when: there are changes in basis between the opening and closing of a futures

A risk analyst at an asset management company is assessing the past performance of an internally managed equity fund. The analyst obtains the following information on the market and the fund over the last year:• Treynor performance index for the fund: 8.00%• Return of the market portfolio: 5.60%• Beta of the fund: 0.65• Risk-free rate of interest: 1.75%Based on the information above, what is the Jensen’s alpha for the equity fund over the same period?